Corresponding with James McCarthy

by SDG on November 13, 2009

in Uncategorized

SDG here, belatedly responding to a number of requests I received a few months back when Jimmy mentioned on the air that I had once corresponded with anti-Catholic apologist James McCarthy.

Here’s the background: In 1992, James McCarthy’s video “Catholicism: Crisis of Faith” was first coming out under the banner of a group called Lumen Productions (read a short critique of the video from Catholic Answers).

In November 1992 I contacted McCarthy to express my objections to this project. (This was only a few months after I was received into the Church, though I had been researching and reading about the Faith for years, and had just begun my graduate work at St. Charles Borromeo.)

McCarthy sent me a free official transcript pamphlet based on the video, and we subsequently exchanged a series of letters. During the course of this exchange McCarthy sent me his pamphlet “The Mass: From Mystery to Meaning” as well as manuscript drafts from The Gospel According to Rome, which he asked me to critique from a Catholic perspective. (Just last night Jimmy mentioned to me that he had recently run across a text I wrote in those days in which I critiqued The Gospel According to Rome. I had forgotten all about writing that critique, so I’ll be looking over that in the (hopefully near) future, and perhaps posting here any points worth making public.)

In my first letter, I quoted the words of Martin Luther: “One thing I ask, that neither truth nor error be condemned unheard and unrefuted.” I wrote that I appreciated the research that went into the project, and commended them for turning to good Catholic apologetical and catechetical works as well as ecumenical councils as sources. On the other hand, I added, “precisely because your sources were so good, I fail to understand how this pamphlet could contain some of the simple factual errors that it does.” After pointing out numerous instances of misstatements and distortions of Catholic teaching in Lumen’s video project “Catholicism: Crisis of Faith,” I concluded in my closing paragraph:

In short, the video appears to be aimed at Catholics whose faith is shallow, ill-informed, and unstable, who will not realize that there is anything more to the issues than you have presented here. It seems to seek to make a case that will appear unanswerable and unarguable to those who have never heard the arguments and answers. It looks like its purpose is to prey on the weak and sick of the flock … with promises of greener pastures: but it seems unwilling to admit to its prey that their flock may have healthier sheep (not to mention shepherds) who might withstand the attack; or that there may be greener pastures within the very fold which they have never known.

McCarthy’s reply was courteous and irenic. He thanked me for the “loving tone” and reasonable approach of my letter (which he contrasted favorably with the “enraged” tone of a Lutheran woman who had also written that week to take exception of the film). In subsequent correspondence he expressed appreciation for my “good writing style and patient reasoning.” (Alas, looking back at those early letters, I cringe at some of my stylistic quirks in those days.)

The following is a summary of salient points of our exchange, organized topically and generally moving from shorter and less consequential exchanges to longer and more substantial ones.

A few notes: I have made minor typographical corrections and such both to McCarthy’s letters and to mine. At times I have expanded upon comments from my original emails with additional analysis (it should be fairly clear where this has been done). Third, while I believe I have the complete correspondence before me, and while I’ve tried to be as complete as possible, I can’t be sure I haven’t lost or missed something. Finally, this exchange took place over fifteen years ago; I expect that neither McCarthy nor I would necessarily approach all of the issues below exactly as we did at the time. That said, I offer the following highlights of our exchange for whatever light it may shed on works that are still offered by McCarthy.

  1. In some cases, “Catholicism: Crisis of Faith” includes accurate characterizations of Catholic teaching, especially from interviews with Catholics, but then goes on to offer canards aimed at a caricature of the true teaching. For example, “Catholicism: Crisis” features an ex-priest correctly stating that the Immaculate Conception means that “Mary was saved already … at the point of conception” (pp. 19-20; page numbers from transcript booklet), but shortly afterward attempts to refute the doctrine by appealing to Mary’s line in the Magnificat, “My spirit rejoices in God my savior,” adding, “Mary herself said that she needed a savior.” What does this prove? The video itself has just admitted that the Catholic doctrine doesn’t say otherwise.

    I can find no response to this in any of McCarthy’s letters to me.

  2. “Catholicism: Crisis” claims that “Catholic tradition confuses [Mary's] position with that of Christ” (pp 22-23). Evidence of this charge? “Catholicism: Crisis” cites the apparitions at Fatima, in which the Blessed Virgin says, e.g., “My immaculate heart will be your refuge and the way to lead you to God.”

    If nothing else, I pointed out, Fatima is a private revelation, not a matter of “Catholic tradition.” Responding, McCarthy acknowledged that Fatima was not part of public revelation, but said, “The point we were seeking to make is that the traditional teachings of the Catholic Church have so confused the role of Mary and Jesus that heretical concepts can easily find a place in Catholicism. The claims of Fatima concerning Mary’s heart should have been condemned by the Church. They were not condemned because Tradition had made room for them.”

    This reply does not address the central issue that Fatima is treated is if it were Catholic Tradition. Furthermore, I argued that the statements from Fatima that “Catholicism: Crisis” attacked were compatible with sound Christian teaching. For example, the description of Mary’s heart as a “refuge” does not usurp a role belonging to Christ alone; servants of God also can be “refuges,” as Isaiah 32:1 illustrates: “Behold, a king will reign in righteousness, and princes will rule in justice. Each will be like a hiding place from the wind, a covert from the tempest, like streams of water in a dry place, like the shade of a great rock in a weary land.”

    I can find no further discussion on this point.

  3. “Catholicism: Crisis” claims that during the “hundred years preceding the Second Vatican Council … the Catholic Church developed many new doctrines concerning Mary” (p. 19). Concerning the Assumption, “Catholicism: Crisis” states, “Everyone wanted to know [whether Mary had been bodily assumed into Heaven], but both the Scriptures and Catholic tradition were silent” (p. 21).

    This is plain historical falsehood. The Immaculate Conception and Assumption of Mary (the two doctrines McCarthy had in mind; “many” is an exaggeration) were not dogmatically defined until the century preceding Vatican II, but the claim that these were “new doctrines” “developed” by the Church during this period, and that tradition was “silent” about Mary’s Assumption, is manifestly false.

    To this McCarthy responded, “Did Marian doctrines develop or were they simply defined? We did use the term develop. I have before me a tract by Catholic Answers of San Diego titled ‘Can Dogma Develop?’ They answer, yes. They quote Vatican II as saying, ‘The tradition which comes from the Apostles develops in the Church with the help of the Holy Spirit.’” McCarthy also acknowledged that “many” was “a regrettable overstatement.”

    It should be noted that this response equivocates on the term “develop.” To say that the Church “developed new doctrines” during the century in question does not suggest that the doctrines underwent “development” in the Catholic sense of ongoing clarification and increased understanding of existing beliefs. Rather, it suggests that the doctrines were novelties materially unconnected with the prior faith of the Church. Moreover, the proposed time-frame for the development of these novelties, implying that the beliefs did not exist prior to the century preceding Vatican II, is unambiguously historically false. One can mount a challenge to the claim that the Immaculate Conception and Assuption go back to the earliest days of the Church, but there is no question that both were believed, in essentially the same form that they were eventually defined, centuries and centuries prior to Vatican II.

    In my reply, I wrote, “I am not aware that the Immaculate Conception did any developing after Duns Scotus, or that the Assumption did much developing at all. And it is unequivocally incorrect to refer to the doctrines as ‘new’” (i.e., novelties of the century prior to Vatican II). In reponse, McCarthy contended that the dogmatic definition of the Immaculate Conception did indeed “develop” the doctrine further, which is probably a justifiable claim, but does not justify the original claim that the Church “developed new doctrines” during this time-frame.

    I also pointed out that “Catholicism: Crisis” takes a similar approach in its section on Tradition to other doctrines (transubstantiation, purgatory, papal infallibility, the Assumption etc.), misleadingly mentioning the dates when various dogmas were defined with no indication that the beliefs themselves existed long before they were defined. As I wrote, “The reader or viewer is left with the impression that these dates represent the invention of these doctrines; and no slightest obstacle is placed in his way.”

    I can find no further discussion on this point.

  4. “Catholicism: Crisis” quotes statements from a number of anti-Catholics on justification and the Gospel that distort the Church’s teaching. E.g., quoting Bart Brewer: “The Catholic Gospel, the Roman Catholic Gospel, is absolutely a gospel of works” (p. 31). Again, quoting a couple of ex-nuns: “Someone has once mentioned that God has done 99% and we have 1% left to finish”; “I came to recognize that it’s not … sincerity that’s going to get us to heaven.”

    In response, I pointed out that the Council of Trent declared that justification is accomplished by God alone, by means of His own righteousness alone, merited by the superabundant satisfaction made by Christ alone (cf. the “causes” of justification in chapter VII of Trent’s Decree on Justification). Regarding the comments from the ex-nuns, I noted, “Viewers will reasonably assume that these women, as former nuns, are accurately characterizing Catholic theology, which nowhere teaches the ’1 percent’ theory or the ‘sincerity’ theory.” I also pointed out that this was the only major subject covered in the video which did not quote one of the two priests interviewed for the video — as if for their presentation on this subject it was important not to have an actual Catholic point of view represented.

    To this McCarthy responded that the issue turned on Protestants having “a different definition of justification than you do.” I answered that by justification I understood “a positive act of God whereby, unto his own glory and our salvation, for the merits of Christ, and by means of his own righteousness or justice, through faith and baptism, He not only forgives our sins but creates us anew, raising us up to the spiritual life of grace, making us his children.” I added, “Except for two words (‘and baptism’), I should be rather surprised to learn that your understanding of the term is radically different from this.”

    I further pointed out that the Bible speaks of “salvation” in different ways, sometimes in the past tense (e.g., Eph 2:8), but also in the future tense (e.g., Acts 15:11).

    McCarthy asked me whether we could agree that “if anyone says that justification involves the meritorious works of men, he is preaching a false gospel”. I responded that I agreed if by “justification” McCarthy meant “the act of reconciling a sinner to God” and if by “meritorious works of men” he meant “any deeds a sinner might do to merit or acquire God’s favor.” In that sense, I said, “meritorious works of men” are nonexistent; the unjustified man can do nothing meritorious before God. But I added that Catholic theology also spoke of ongoing justification (where Protestant theology tends to speak of sanctification), and that “meritorious works of men” could also mean the just man’s grace-filled deeds which show forth Christ’s transforming power, and which God deigns to reward.

    I can find no further discussion on this point.

  5. “Catholicism: Crisis” claims that the Church teaches that “the priest actually transforms the bread into the body of Christ” (p. 11). Again, “Catholics are taught that the priest must change the bread” (p. 12). This is misleading, since it is God, not the priest, who transforms the elements into the body and blood of Christ at the words of consecration. The priest is authorized to say the words of consecration in persona Christi, but the power is God’s.

    To this, McCarthy responded, “Our intention was not to imply that priests have power in themselves. They do claim to be the agents of God in the act of transubstantiation. … Often we say a man does something, but mean he is the agent.”

    I replied that while I was sure McCarthy understood Catholic teaching well enough to know that the miracle is not attributed to the person of the priest, many in his audience probably weren’t, and the language in “Catholicism: Crisis” would cause confusion and misunderstanding of Catholic teaching.

    I can find no further discussion on this point.

  6. “Catholicism: Crisis” claims that “Transubstantiation is the foundation upon which the Mass rests” (p. 12). This, I wrote, is like saying “Hypostatic Union is the foundation upon which the birth of Jesus rests.” Terms like “Transubstantiation” and “Hypostatic Union” are philosophical formulations of divinely revealed truths, human attempts to speak truly about God’s actions by means of human categories. The object of faith, though, is the divinely revealed truths, not the philosophical formulations or categories.

    The Church’s faith, defined by Trent, is that “by the consecration of the bread and wine there takes place a change of the whole substance of the bread into the substance of the body of Christ our Lord and of the whole substance of the wine into the substance of his blood.” Trent goes on to say: “This change the holy Catholic Church has fittingly and properly called transubstantiation.” Lumen’s characterization of transubstantiation as the “foundation” of the Mass, rather than a “fitting and proper” description of the miraculous change upon which the Mass is founded, distorts the issue.

    McCarthy’s initial response was that “Catholicism: Crisis” uses the word Transubstantiation “to mean bread transformed into the real presence. The narration was not seeking to state that Transubstatiation is the theological origin of the Mass. Rather, that Transubstantiation is necessary for there to be a sacrifice.”

    I’m not sure McCarthy entirely got the point that I was trying to make. In any case, I replied that “If by that you mean that the reality described by the word ‘Transubstantiation’ is necessary, then I agree. But I think you mean that the technical concepts of form, substance and accidents are necessary, which is not true. Transubstantiation is simply a way of describing the miracle of the Real Presence in philosophical terms. The description is not necessary for the miracle.” See also the next item for more on the vocabulary of transubstantiation.

  7. “Catholicism: Crisis” claims that the idea of “substance” and “accidents” has “long since been discarded by modern science.” The intended inference here, of course, is that since transubstantiation (which presupposes the categories of substance and accidents) is supposedly “the foundation of the Mass,” and science has “discarded” these categories, science has undermined the Mass itself.

    In reality, science has not and cannot discard the categories of substance and accidents, which, I wrote, “are metaphysical [categories] rather than physical, philosophical rather than scientific, and are not subject to scrutiny under a microscope. Which scientific discipline has proven them unreal or inadequate? How? By means of what experiment?”

    McCarthy’s reply sidestepped the question and followed up a non sequitur with a non-answer: “When asked for an explanation why the bread and the wine look like bread and wine after the consecration, the Roman Catholic Church answers ‘Transubstantiation.’ … You say [the categories] are metaphysical or philosophical terms rather than scientific. I am aware that the Roman Catholic Church discourages attempts to really understand the change and considers it a mystery. If the Church wishes to stay in the realm of the mystical, there is nothing anyone can say for or against the doctrine. But when the Church uses Transubstantiation to explain what is perceived (or not perceived) by the senses at the consecration, it is giving an explanation of physical realities. At that point, it becomes subject to scientific scrutiny.” McCarthy continued, “I cannot give you the history of the use or disuse of terms ‘substance’ and ‘accidents,’ but I am confident that no modern scientist would resort to ‘accidents’ or ‘substance’ to explain anything, much less that the substance can change while the accidents remain the same.”

    To this I replied: “Forgive me, but this response makes me think you didn’t understand my statement. ‘Metaphysical’ does not mean that it is a mystery which we are discouraged from attempting to understand; nor does it mean ‘mystical’ (although the Eucharist is in fact a mystery). It simply means that the terms belong to a given philosophical way of describing things. Metaphysical categories, as such, cannot be proved or disproved, because they are not statements or assertions: they can only be found more useful or less useful than other categories.”

    Remarkably, despite this, McCarthy agreed that “The issue here is not could God miraculously change bread into Christ’s body but did he … God is capable of making inward changes without outward manifestation.” Pressed further, he added: “I can agree with you that ‘some realities’ are ‘inconceivable.’ I can also state my confidence that God can do anything, even change bread into Christ’s body and still have it look like bread. If Scripture clearly taught that, I hope that I would be willing to close my mind to the contrary evidence [?] and believe God no matter how absurd it seemed. However, I firmly believe that Scripture does not teach the Roman Catholic doctrine of the real presence. Therefore, I feel free to use the physical evidence that presents itself to support my case. I trust you agree that the physical evidence is on my side.”

    In other words, McCarthy essentially admitted that what Catholics call “transubstantiation” is something that God could do if he wanted to. To this I responded, “as long as you agree that thing itself is objectively possible, there’s no point quibbling about the way the thing is described. … You can deny transubstantiation if you like — you can say that it is false, that the thing does not happen, that it is utterly devoid of any scriptural justification … and whatever else you want to say — but as long as the thing itself is within God’s power, what are you trying to prove by fussing about substance and accidents?”

    I continued: “You say, ‘When asked for an explanation why the bread and the wine look like bread and wine after the consecration, the Roman Catholic Church answers “Transubstantiation.”‘ No. Transubstantiation is a description of what, not an explanation of why or how. It is simply another way of saying what you just said: that the bread and the wine look like bread and wine even though they are the body and blood of Christ” — which (again) we agree is objectively possible. It is not intended to be an explanation; indeed, none is possible (except perhaps ‘Because God in his sovereignty has so chosen’). This is precisely the same sort of thing I objected to in the ‘foundation of the Mass’ remark.”

    Responding to his comment about “no modern scientists” would the categories of substance and accidents, I wrote, “This sounds like something I once heard from an atheist who remarked in my hearing that ‘modrn science’ had disproven miracles. I asked him the same question I asked you — ‘Which science? When? By means of what experiment?’ His response was, ‘Oh I don’t know any specifics like that; but face it, scientists today just don’t believe in miracles.’ There are two things wrong with this answer. First, what modern scientists may or may not believe in has nothing to do with what ‘modern science’ has or has not established. Secondly, the statement is false; scientists who are Christians certainly do believe in miracles. And scientists who are Catholics, such as Fr. Stanley Jaki, the priest-physicist with doctorates in physics and theology, certainly do appeal to ‘accidents’ and ‘substance’, precisely to explain the Eucharist. (In fact, I’ve heard that Albert Einstein, in his efforts to understand the nature of matter, once questioned a Catholic priest at length about the language of transubstantiation!” (Account here.)

    I continued: “However, the real problem with your answer is that, as I have noted, Aristotelian categories are not scientific but philosophical or metaphysical: and there are plenty of modern philosophers who use them. … What was the point of your remark about ‘modern science’ (and the similar remarks in your new MS)? That transubstatiation does not make sense? That it is nonsense to describe God substantially changing the bread and wine into the body and blood of Christ without destroying the physical appearances of bread and wine? That, in fact, even God’s power could not accomplish such a thing? But you agree that it could. Therefore I ask you again: What are you trying to say?”

    I can find no further discussion on this point.

  8. After quoting a Catholic source correctly stating that the Eucharist “is not a different sacrifice from the one Jesus made on Calvary. It is the same sacrifice” (p. 13), “Catholicism: Crisis” goes on to argue, “It only took one offering to save us from sin … the scripture is very clear about the fact that there is only one propitiatory sacrifice (pp 14-15) — as if the Eucharist were conceived as a separate or additional sacrifice. This is another example of “Catholicism: Crisis” correctly stating a Catholic teaching and then going on to offer a canard aimed at refuting a misstatement of Catholic teaching.

    McCarthy’s response to this was to mail me a copy of his pamphlet “The Mass: From Mystery to Meaning” as a fuller discussion of the issues. Of course that doesn’t change the misleading nature of the original claim. Later he sent me part of a manuscript he was working on for a book. In fact, as I pointed out in our ongoing correspondence, “The Mass: From Mystery to Meaning” does not improve upon the problematic presentation of “Catholicism: Crisis of Faith,” but merely perpetuates the problem.

    The central charge of “The Mass: From Mystery to Meaning” is that “We find in the Mass … a man re-sacrificing Christ” (p. 17). Citing Hebrews, McCarthy writes, “The Scriptures tell us that a sacrifice which must be constantly repeated reveals itself to be weak” (p. 19). Again, citing 1 Peter 3:18 (“For Christ died for sins once for all”), McCarthy writes, “Now there is something worth commemorating! What a joy to take bread and wine and remember what he did for us rather than attempt to repeat it” (20). Again, “Is the Eucharist a symbol or a sacrifice? Your answer will depend on a far more important question which each must ask himself: am I relying on Christ’s sacrifice on the cross alone as sufficient payment for my sins?” (p. 20).

    Despite the admission in “Catholicism: Crisis of Faith” that the Eucharist “is not a different sacrifice from the one Jesus made on Calvary” but “the same sacrifice,” McCarthy’s critique of the Mass again and again assumes that the Mass attempts to repeat or add to the sacrifice of the Cross. In order to critique the Catholic teaching, McCarthy must first distort and falsify it.

    Among other things, I wrote in response to all this that the “need to return again and again to the one Sacrifice is not a specially Catholic thing; Protestants express the same thing when [they] sing ‘Lead Me to Calvary’ and ‘Near the Cross.’ Wouldn’t our local Baptists be nonplused if I suggested to them that if they really believed in the efficacy of the Cross they shouldn’t need to be constantly led back to it or kept near it?” Protestants, I argued, return spiritually again and again to the Cross, “through singing,” while in the Mass Catholics return “both spiritually and physically, through eating and drinking. But it’s the same sort of thing.”

    Referring to Hebrews 9:22 (“Without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sins”), McCarthy writes that “a bloodless sacrifice is a powerless sacrifice” (p. 19). My reply: “Terminology trouble. The point of the ‘bloody oblation / “unbloody oblation’ language is not that there is now a new and more pleasant way to sacrifice Christ again and again without causing Him all the inconvenience of the first time. The point is simply that the efficacy of the Eucharist stems from Christ’s one shedding of blood on the Cross, not from a new shedding of blood on the altar.” In other words, “there is only one oblation — in which blood was indeed shed — which is now offered or presented in such a way as not to repeat it (ie. shed blood again).”

    McCarthy claims, “Every Mass declares that Christ’s death on the cross was not enough” (p. 19). My reply: “On the contrary, every Mass depends upon precisely the fact that Christ’s death on the cross was enough. There is nothing on the altar which was not on the cross. If there were any defect in the cross, the same defect would extend to the Table. If there is any excellence in the Table, it derives directly from the Cross.”

    Citing Hebrews 10:10,18 (“We have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all … Now where there is forgiveness of these sins, there is no longer any offering for sin”), McCarthy argues that since there is “no longer any offering for sin,” Jesus’ sacrifice is solely in the past. Turning this argument on its head, I pointed out that “the passage speaks not only of the offering in the past tense as an accomplished fact, but also of our sanctification (“We have been sanctified…”). And indeed, objectively speaking, Christ’s work on the cross accomplished all the sanctification that is ever going to occur. In that sense, sanctification is an accomplished fact. But I hope no one would argue ‘And so therefore don’t seek to experience any sanctification here and now. It’s already accomplished. You can’t repeat or add to what Christ has already done.’ For of course Christians experience subjective [i.e., experiential] sanctification every day. And this is itself the work of Christ’s once-for-all sacrifice on the cross — objectively finished, but subjectively [experientially] experienced on a daily, ongoing basis. The only difference between us is, again, that I participate physically, not just spiritually.”

    Here is McCarthy’s response to all of this: “You must understand that I reject as double-talk the Catholic explanations of the Mass as a continuation or perpetuation of Calvary. If Sunday’s Mass is propitious and produces the sacramental effects ex opere operato, from the work done, then you simply cannot say it is simply the continuation of Calvary.” Responding to my statement that I have always believed in Christ’s completed work of atonement and still do, he wrote, “I ask, then why do you give your time defending a practice which does not witness to the finished work of Christ but to the unbiblical Catholic concept of the continuation or perpetuation of Calvary? Every Sunday you are witnessing to an ongoing sacrifice not the finished sacrifice.”

    McCarthy even went on to ask rhetorically whether 1 Peter 3:18 states “Christ died for sins once for all…” or “For Christ is dying for sins…,” adding, “Do you indeed witness at the Mass to 1 Peter 3:18 (past tense), or to the Catholic concept of Christ, the immaculate victim of the Mass, dying (present tense)? There is a substantive difference here. Christ ask us to proclaim his death, not his dying.”

    As this indicates, McCarthy is (or was) committed to his distortion of Catholic teaching on this point. He must have known that the Church does not teach, and no knowledgeable Catholic believes, that Jesus is “dying (present tense)” in the Mass. He makes free to impute this notion to Catholicism, though, by dismissing Catholic explanations of its own teaching as “double-talk,” and then attacking what he claims Catholic dogma “really” entails but officially denies.

    This, of course, is exactly like a Jew or a Muslim quoting biblical injunctions against idolatry as a rebuttal of the Trinity or the Incarnation, and then dismissing as “double-talk” Christian explanations of why the Trinity and the Incarnation don’t entail idolatry. Again and again I asked McCarthy to explain why he regarded the Catholic view as double-talk. Without such an explanation, I pointed out, “your calling it ‘double-talk’ only means ‘I don’t get it,’ which is (you must admit) hardly compelling logic. Jews and Muslims don’t get the Trinity or the Incarnation; that doesn’t make Monarchianists and Arians out of us.”

    Again, I wrote, “It would be one thing to argue that the Church’s teaching, while it does not amount to claiming to have an additional sacrifice, is still false and unscriptural. Then we could dismiss the red herring of Heb 7 et al and turn to the real disputed grounds, 1 Cor 10:16 ff, Mal 1, etc. However, you have not wished to take this path, and so you have dismissed this explanation, not simply as untrue, but as ‘double-talk. … Therefore I ask you again: What is your reason for believing the Catholic position to be incoherent? Wherein lies the logical absurdity, and how do you know that it is an absurdity?”

    Although I put this question to McCarthy again and again, I cannot find any attempt to answer it in any letter or work that I have from him.

  9. Similar issues cropped up in discussing the Real Presence. McCarthy spends part of “The Mass: From Mystery to Meaning” making a preemptive strike for “Sound Reason,” noting that “God is rational” and that faith must make sense. While that’s true as far as it goes, combined with the pamphlet’s subtitle (“From Mystery to Meaning”) McCarthy seems to be suggesting an antithesis between “reasonable” or “meaningful” faith and “mysterious” doctrines that transcend human reason or comprehension. As I pointed out, McCarthy’s title strikes me “rather the way a Unitarian tract titled “The Trinity and Incarnation: From Mystery to Meaning” would strike you. The mystery is very meaningful.”

    McCarthy notes that Jesus’ body was visibly present to the apostles at the Last Supper, and contends that even now is physically located in one place, Heaven (pp 13,14). He also contends, rightly, that the attributes of Christ’s two natures are distinct and not communicable, e.g., Christ’s divinity does not comprise flesh and bones, and in the same way Christ’s humanity is not omnipresent. How then, he asks, can His flesh and blood be present at all the Eucharists in the world? He even implies the Catholic view requires Christ’s body to be located “everywhere” at once, or at least in many different places.

    The answer to this, as I noted, has to do with the one way that Christ is not present in the Eucharist: He is not present “locally” or “spatially,” or, in the words of St. Thomas, “present as in a place.” The Real Presence does not involve a bodily extension in space; there is no spatial distribution of head, torso and limbs, etc. Christ’s body is located only in heaven, but the miracle of the Eucharist makes it, so to speak, present to earthly places, not present in them. It is not that Christ comes down to earth, or bilocates, or any such thing, but that heaven and earth touch in the Blessed Sacrament. As analogies, I pointed to Lewis’ The Last Battle, where the stable door becomes a frontier between old Narnia and New Narnia, and Madeleline L’Engle’s A Wrinkle in Time, in which time/space is conceived as a fabric that can be “folded” or warped to bring together two points far apart on the surface of the cloth.

    McCarthy’s response: “Only Stephen Hawking could follow your arguments here. Let’s put ourselves in the place of the apostles for a moment following the Last Supper. Before they depart for the Garden, Christ introduces you to the eleven. Lest they interpret his words wrong, he wants you, Steven D. Greydanus, to make the record clear. You read them your reply as in the letter space warps and all. Now, what would they think? Seriously, doesn’t such a complicated explanation make you question if you are on the right track? I have found it a help in interpreting the Bible to remember that Christ was generally speaking to humble, working-class people.”

    My reply: “Well, for that matter, how would you like to have the honor of walking onto the scene at Caesarea Philippi just after Peter’s confession and explaning about the Hypostatic Union? On one level, [these matters are] really simple (‘You are the Son of the living God’; ‘This is My body’), but once someone starts asking ‘Yeah, but how does it work?’ all of us end up over our heads. But the complicated explanations don’t put us off, because they aren’t the object of our faith, Jesus is. Just as you didn’t spend this Christmas thinking about Athanasian theology, I don’t spend Mass thinking about Thomism and space warps. We think about Him.”

    I can find no further discussion of this point.

A closing observation: A common thread running through McCarthy’s apologetic on the Eucharist, from his efforts to debunk the categories of “substance” and “accidents” to his characterization of the theology of the sacrifice of the Mass as “double-talk” and his pitting Christ’s heavenly locality against the Eucharistic real presence, is his efforts to represent Catholic teaching as incoherent or impossible.

On at least one angle, transubstantiation, I seem to have elicited an admission that God could do it if he wanted to. Whether McCarthy would ultimately have made similar concessions, had our correspondence continued, to the effect that if he wanted to, God could cause the once-for-all sacrifice of the cross to be made present again and again, could make Christ who is present on earth (or to earth) without bringing him down from heaven, I can’t say, but I can’t see from his arguments how he would have resisted this line of thought.

On this latter point, I’ve always appreciated (though obviously not totally agreed with) the approach of the founder of the tradition in which I was raised, John Calvin, who wrote in the Institutes:

I am not satisfied with the view of those who, while acknowledging that we have some kind of communion with Christ, only make us partakers of the Spirit, omitting all mention of flesh and blood. As if it were said to no purpose at all, that his flesh is meat indeed, and his blood is drink indeed; that we have no life unless we eat his flesh and drink his blood; and so forth … No, the very flesh in which he resides he makes vivifying to us, that by partaking it we may feed for immortality … But though it seems an incredible thing that the flesh of Christ, while at such a distance from us in respect of place, should be food to us, let us remember how far the secret virtue of the Holy Spirit surpasses all our conceptions, and how foolish it is to wish to measure its immensity by our feeble capacity. Therefore, what our mind does not comprehend let faith conceive, viz., that the Spirit truly unites things separated by space.

Whether McCarthy would resist this as “double-talk,” and if so whether or how he might seek to defend his charge, I can’t say with finality. Based on what he did say, I can’t think anything he might have said in this direction would have seemed at all persuasive.

Our correspondence covered other subjects as well (mostly from my side), but the above suffices to give a good sense of our back-and-forth. Hopefully I’ll be back before too long with points from my old critique of The Gospel According to Rome.

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Saludos:
Jimmy Akin
¿Dominas Español?
Deseo preguntarte sobre la Peshitta
¿Es cierto que en el ¨New Testament¨aparece YHWH?.
Soy nuevo en este foro y entre con el fin de hacerte esta pregunta.
josua3000@yahoo.com.mx

SDG,
Good to hear that you are still in touch with O'Neil. Give him my best and tell him he is missed (by me, at least).
Happy Thanksgiving, everyone.
The Chicken (who is happy he is not a turkey)

"...we should make an extra effort to be - shall I say - gentle. This doesn't mean go easy on them intellectually, but watch carefully to avoid a hostile tone."
I could use an extra measure of patience and... gentleness, at times. I too often lose my temper against rude behavior.

FWIW, I am still in touch with Oneil. I think we have established at least some level of mutual respect.
Gecko has not written to me -- one of the only people I have ever disinvited not to do so. As I mentioned earlier, I suspect that he was actually trying to get disinvited because he realized he was in over his head and would not be able to defend his claims against sustained cross-examination. When someone feels unjustly bounced from the site, they are usually motivated to protest their bouncing and continue the cross-examination of Catholicism. That Gecko has not done so converges with my hypothesis about his motivation.

Funny, I thought that WAS the policy, Chicken. :-) What exactly could I have done differently in that regard from what I did?
Not much. I think, in Gecko's case, had he been shown, immediately, that not only long posts, but rudeness would get him kicked off of the blog, he might have started with a less defiant tone. It is hard to tell. O'Neil started out kind of mixed. He was deferential in science with people whom he knew were actual scientists, but very passionate with some he considered laymen. Since the early discussion concerned science, he was less likely to be rude, overall. Once pure theology kicked in, he became more passionate and progressively ruder.
It may be that many Protestants (SDG and Tim J. can provide more insight) think that simply quoting Scripture is enough to settle a question and that anyone that is in disagreement with their interpretation is a heretic. Perhaps, that is why there are so many splinter groups in Protestantism. What we might need is a passage of Scripture that is universally not understood so that we can show them, early on, that more than one interpretation of a passage of Scripture is sometimes possible. If we can dilute the absolutism, we might be able to dilute the tendency towards triumphalism, which is really what is fueling the rudeness. We Catholics can also be triumphantalists and on some Radtrad sites the commenters sound very similar to O'Neil and Gecko. At JA.org, we tend, I think, to be more discussion-oriented. It is, however, I think, the triumphantalism that almost always precedes the rudeness and if it can be detected and defused early on. it might lead to a more productive discussion.
My thoughts, anyway. SDG and Tim J. might understand the nature of the beast, better, so, over to you guys.
The Chicken

I honestly believe that neither Gecko nor Oneil suffered from bad faith. I think that Father Gregory of the Orthodox Church in America put it well in comment at Mark Shea's blog -- both in terms of the etiology of "testosterone-driven apologetics" (of any persuasion), and the challenge of a loving and gentle response. I will not excerpt his wise and penetrating comments; they are worth pondering in full.

Actually what I said was "genuine dialogue is not really an option" which is quite different than "impossible". Me being able to slam dunk a basketball on a 10 foot goal is "not really an option" for me but is not "impossible" - I could grow 7 inches in the middle of the night from some medical disorder or future nutritional supplement.
Nevertheless, my point was that both Gecko and Oneil misrepresented Catholic sources in the body of their text and if you notice once this point is raised, this is typically when both of them got hostile in their comments. No one likes to get caught in a lie.
This coupled with the attack-style format that both of them chose to employ shows to me that they were more disruptive to the pursuit of truth than acting in 'good faith' as an agent of that pursuit.
But this is not my blog, Jimmy and SDG do a very good job with it and I am just glad it exists. I will, if the opportunity presents itself, just point out that someone has misrepresented a Catholic source and disregard anything further from that commentator.

Lucien, saying "Genuine dialogue is impossible with this person" is always a self-fulfilling prophecy. Furthermore, being skeptical of someone's intentions is exactly the last attitude we should be taking if we're interested in "genuine dialogue". Let's follow Wikipedia protocol and assume good faith until definitively proven otherwise. In Gecko's case, there was no such proof. This is a blog, not an academic journal; people should not be banned from the discussion simply for failure to cite all their sources properly (outright plagiarism is another matter, as is misinformation).
I think when dealing with commenters who are militantly opposed to the positions of this blog (this applies particularly to Protestants, but also to atheists, agnostics, etc.), we should make an extra effort to be - shall I say - gentle. This doesn't mean go easy on them intellectually, but watch carefully to avoid a hostile tone.

I think SDG is doing a good job and acted up front and early enough with both Oneil and Gecko trying to get them to be polite.
Quite frankly the mammoth post by Gecko was just a superficial attack meant to confuse those weak in their understanding of the faith; much like McCarthy's materials in general and so SDG thought it might be an opportunity to learn how to defend against those kinds of attacks.
Genuine dialog(ue) is not really an option with the likes of Gecko and Oneil so I think it is only necessary that we give a reasonable defense in an honest and charitable fashion.
But both Gecko and Oneil deliberately misrepresented sources that the Church uses as teaching documents.
You can call it a mistake or you can call it forgetfulness but I am much more skeptical of their intentions and I don't think that that tactic should be accepted.
In other words, "If someone lies, their thread dies".
Would any one here ever go enter into a dialog(ue) with Mormons and misrepresent a citation from the Journal of Discourses?

"Could Jimmy or Tim J. or SDG establish a policy that, should a poor, helpless, Evangelical, filled with zeal, wander into the comment box, again, that everyone, here, will do their best, from the start, to pull them aside and show them the ropes, as in how to be zealous, but polite?"

Funny, I thought that WAS the policy, Chicken. :-) What exactly could I have done differently in that regard from what I did?

Oh, one more point:
Could Jimmy or Tim J. or SDG establish a policy that, should a poor, helpless, Evangelical, filled with zeal, wander into the comment box, again, that everyone, here, will do their best, from the start, to pull them aside and show them the ropes, as in how to be zealous, but polite? Impoliteness has gotten more people kicked off from JA.org than any other reason. Perhaps, early intervention is the key? No doubt, Evangelicals (I'm using them as a shorthand stand-in for Protestant posters, in general) feel they must, urgently, convert we poor, dumb, misled Catholics, however, stressing patience as a virtue might help.
I once heard a talk on Fundamentalism by a priest who was an invited guest if a university church and his comment was that Protestants like to convert; Catholic like to dialogue. Evangelicals like quick results and the Sinners Prayer; Catholics like slow, methodical development. He wondered if discussion were actually even possible.
I think it is, but could there be a short discussion on how to prevent the meltdowns we've seen from people like O'Neil and Gecko? They help us challenge and frame our arguments as much as we help to challenge theirs. It would be a shame if Ecumenism were just another name for a shouting match. That is not what the Church intended in the document on Ecumenism from Vatican II. I suppose we are more restrained at JA.org, then at many free-for-all sites, but perhaps we can do better?
Just a question to the floor.
The Chicken

Welcome, Athanasius from over the pond.
Roger, above, asked the question:
Yet, I am still curious on how a Jew who lived in 100BC would know how to interpret scripture?
J123 repeated the answer I posted from some time, ago. This is the classic answer, because, basically, one is talking about incomplete revelation. The truth was only partially known and understood in Old Testament times. The question is, how did the Jewish people decide which texts were authentically inspired? How did they decide that God really spoke to or inspired the author of a given text, given that they did not have a fully functioning Magisterium (although, they did have a partial one). This question goes to the matter of how they decided that certain utterances or people were prophetic (including histories).
This is an interesting question. In the book of Jeremiah, for instance, there are some rules given for discerning true from false prophets and there is a history of slow development in discernment among the Jewish people. There were genuine prophets; some false prophets; some true prophets who were pagans (Balaam, for instance). If anyone is interested, I could write a fair amount about how this discernment slowly developed, although it is not something to do with the topic of this post. It has to do with the development in the understanding of the office of the Prophet and that means understanding exactly who and what prophets are.
Having decided that a given author was inspired, his writings would be accepted. Thus, Isaiah was accepted as a prophetic book based upon the methodology developed by the Jews due to their long and unique contact with God. Their contact, however, was only partial, so their discernment had to be augmented by certain external signs which pointed indirectly to the provenance of the writing. In the current age, Jesus, being the complete revelation of God, left a Church, empowered by the Holy Spirit in a direct way, that is able to pronounce on the truth of Scripture in a direct way, through internal means (although using external signs).
Given that Jesus was to make use of the Old Testament, God kept the texts which were decided on as being inspired from going off of the rails (making false choices) although God worked more in the background, since he had not yet revealed himself, directly. When Christ came, he validated the Jewish discernment which he had been a part of directing, in secret.
Thus, we have the partial, but correct revelation from the methodology in the Old Testament as the first source of knowing that an Old Testament text were inspired, but we also have the validation of Jesus for the texts in the New Dispensation, because he read from these texts during the temple service and approved of them.
There is a lot more that I could say, but, as Gecko has left the room, there seems to be no need to answer the question any further in this thread.
The Chicken

My first time commenting on this site - I'd just like to say that both the original post and the ensuing discussion have been fascinating.
I'd also like to say that I am grateful for Gecko's comments. Although I don't agree with him, and there's a lot of stuff in there that we've heard a million times before, on the whole I find his (or her?) level of research and argumentation somewhat more impressive than the majority of anti-Catholic polemics that we usually come up against. There were one or two 'new' points in there, for me at least, so I wouldn't dismiss him completely out of hand.
I think it illustrates wonderfully the danger of interpreting without the guidance of the Church. It is possible to be extremely convinving - if my university students produced this sort of exegeis of a literary, non-religious text, I'd be thrilled! - but ultimately the test must not be 'what does the Bible seem to me to say?' but 'what is the Truth, handed down from Christ to the Apostles and preserved in Scripture and Tradition?'. In the light of what is known about Christian beliefs in the first century (Didache etc), we must conclude that if the Church has got this issue wrong, she got it wrong so early that either the Apostles themselves had misunderstood (in which case where does that leave St John's Gospel anyway?!) or that they were remarkably bad teachers.
I note that Gecko also glosses rather unconvincingly over the accounts in St Paul. I know what he and other Protestants believe this means, but I am utterly unpersuaded that this is the "plain sense" of the texts.
Actually, I had a crisis of faith a while back, and it mostly centered on the Eucharist (I now know this was a sort of 'dark night' which has led to a strenghtening of faith in the long run). What I found most compelling as I researched and prayed about the issue was the fact that the Eucharist is almost undeniably 'sacrificial'. I know Gecko will want to say this is an innovation, but as I've said, this is hardly supported by the evidence of early Christian beliefs, which tied it in with the prophecy of Malachi. Gecko comments correctly that 'eucharistia' means 'thanksgiving', but it is disingenuous to fail to comment that already this was the Greek translation of 'todah' - which was of course a sacrificial meal. As a number of Catholic writers have recently explored, there are considerable typological parallels with the Jewish 'todah' and the Last Supper (it is less likely that it was a Passover meal, though there are inevitable links there too given that the entire Passion was - is - Paschal). And there was of course a prophecy that all sacrifice would cease (cf. Hebrews!) except the todah... And of course, the key point about sacrifices is that they need to be eaten (cf. 1 Corinthians inter alia).
Now granted none of this proves transubstantiation per se, and I do not claim that it does, but it does force into our focus the probability that Jesus was talking about us consuming the sacrificial victim - which all Christians can agree was Him. The John 6 discourse can (should) be read in the light of the need for us to receive the true sacrifice, the only one that could and would be genuinely redemptive. Without this sacrifice, we do not live - end of. Finally, the 'belief' thread that runs through John 6 (and indeed throughout John in general) must be understood in the context of *what* we are to believe: not a mere proposition, 'I believe that God exists' (etc.) but a belief in, i.e. trust in, that redemptive sacrifice: acceptance of Jesus means placing trust in the fact that He is the One Who was sent by the Father, which means precisely that He is not a mere teacher or prophet come to deliver an oral word, but that He is THE sacrificial victim offered up for and therefore received by us.
Reflecting on this I find it impossible to come to any conclusion other than that maintained by the Catholic Church from her inception to the present. All the rest - alternative biblical interpretations, the 'power of the priest', various Popes' attempts to explain the mystery, the scientific/philosophical implications of Transubstantiation etc. etc. - is all interesting and fun to debate, but basically irrelevant.
(Sorry for an untrained apologist writing such a long comment - just thought I'd share my personal perspective on the issue).

Gecko,
Sorry you spit your food out and sorry to see they dis-invited you.
Thank you for your concern regarding the spelling of the word dialog(ue). From my source below it states both are acceptable.
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/dialog
Please in the future cite your sources correctly and people are more apt to listen to you; which was the majority of the point I was trying to make.

Roger,
Not certain. I believe the orginal question was not regarding interpretation of scripture but rather how they decided what books were inspired. Here is Gecko's question restated and a response given by The Masked Chicken.
Gecko: I am also waiting for you to tell me how a Jew living 100 years before Christ could know that, let's say, Isaiah and Jeremiah were inspired without any RC church in existance to tell them.
Chicken: They could do so by a special dispensation from God to fill in for the defect they had in revelation until Christ came. In fact, Scripture alludes to this (Heb 1: 1 - 2):
*God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds;*
Not certain if you will find this answer satifactory. Not certain if I do. I would guess Gecko would not. But at least The Chicken offered a response.

It is sad to see this post to come to such a tragic end.
Yet, I am still curious on how a Jew who lived in 100BC would know how to interpret scripture?

JoAnna, maybe I didn't follow the discussion closely enough -- from my perspective, it looked like Gecko had thrown out the claim that the priest has the power to call down Christ and turn the bread and wine into his body and blood, and he provided a CCC reference that supported most of that statement, which I thought was grounds to call him on the bits that weren't in the CCC, but I wouldn't consider it intellectual dishonesty not to exhaustively reference every possible assertion. I don't profess to have followed the whole subsequent discussion though.

I'd have to disagree with you on one point, SDG -- I think it is intellectual dishonesty to cite a source that isn't wholly the basis of one's assertions. It would have been more accurate of him to cite the CCC, the Council of Trent document, AND Fr. McBrien's book as his sources for that assertion, since he was drawing from all three. Whether or not he was deliberatly omitting these sources or just doing so out of ignorance is debatable.
At any rate, I invited him to try his luck at the CA forums.

>And everything Bobcat has said does not even carry a HINT of Anti-PROTESTANTISM?????
I'm not lying about what protestants believe. But you are lying about what we believe. In fact, you mock what we believe.
>So don't tell me that Jesus would not tolerate me "searching the scriptures"
I never told you to NOT search the scriptures. Don't lie about me.
>you make the completely false charge that I posted his LONG ESSAYS VERBATIM
This is what is known as trying to divert the argument away from something else.
And you did not bother to answer the fact that you accept his interpretation of scripture instead of holding to the Apostles' interpretation of scripture.
I really don't care who's essay you posted verbatim - it just proves you depend on other men for interpretation of scripture. None of the men you cite are holding to the Apostolic interpretation of scripture on this point. That is obvious.
But then you rail against us for accepting the Catholic Church's interpretation of scripture...
Glass houses....
>Response: The unprovable assumption that John passed it on into the waiting hands of Roman Catholic dignitaries for commentary, is delusive.
Did I say that? I never mentioned this.
It is your assumption that is unprovable - that the Apostles kept their interpretation of scripture to themselves, and that we have to figure out the scriptures for ourselves and we cannot count on the Apostolic interpretation of scripture.
>For your information B-C, the Roman Catholic Church has only "infallibly" defined .....
Yet another lie about my faith. Anti-Catholicism is full of bigotry and hate. You've posted so many lies about my faith but you think that's OK.
>First of all, since when has the Lord's name been great among the heathen
The heathen = the Gentiles - 99% of Christianity is Gentile. So you're saying that the Lord's name is not great among them?
This prophecy was fulfilled. Now what about the rest of that verse? It is not fulfilled in your church. Period.
>The word translated "offering" refers to the grain offering, which was a voluntary act of gratitude and NOT any sort of sacrificial sin offering as we find in the Mass.
How is a grain offering "pure"? I recall Paul's letters saying that none of the sacrifices of the old law took away sins....
I thought the sacrifice of Christ was the only PURE offering ever given to the Father? Seriously, if you are right that there are other pure offerings besides Christ's, then Christ was not necessary. Thus, I reject your man-made interpretation of scripture.
So back to my question.
I've asked you multiple times to tell me how John the Apostle interpreted John 6.
It is a simple question.
If you cannot, JUST SAY SO and stop worshiping the mirror. What rubs me the wrong way is your prideful inability to say "I do not know" - what would it hurt to say that? Not like I'm going to slam you for admitting that. But I will slam bigotry and lies easily.
And I wonder what your church teaches about artificial birth control? I bet your church allows it :)

Gecko,
Since your arrival on this thread I’ve been overwhelmed by the 6 months worth of content you dumped. Since you’re keeping track, I’ll note when I copied your original post into a word document it was 71 pages. I copied it because I expected it to be deleted being in violation of Da Rulz. It took me 3 days of free time to read it in its entirety. On the surface it is quite provocative in its first reading and I admit that I do not feel equipped to engage you in this discussion. But more importantly I’m not certain it would be fruitful.
Regardless of how persuasive your Epistle is or is not, I’ve been most discouraged by your behavior and righteous heir. Your insistence that no one here is able to refute your evidence seems to me to be only bravado, because when people such as SDG or the Masked Chicken take the time to address them thoughtfully and earnestly, there comments are seemingly ignored. It appears to me you prefer to engage with those who oppose you and not your arguments. Most striking is the lack of any concession of worth on your part.
SDG has defended your right to speak freely, encouraged you when in his estimation your point holds some validity and in a few instances criticized arguments against yours. I haven’t heard any show of appreciation except this sentence, “It looks like I have been given permission to answer some of your comments and I would be delighted to do so and will get to them as quickly as I am able.”
Your response when being introduced to Da Rulz and how you broke them was a simple admission that you had not read them followed by an assertion that the reaction would have been the same. No harm, no foul, and, I guess, no apology.
The masked chicken conceded that maybe his original response was not as charitable as it might have been. He apologized, and made some efforts to engage you courteously, expressing his wishes that the dialogue be fruitful. All such efforts seemingly ignored by you. He also pointed out that your entire Epistle rested on the disputed argument that the Bible is your sole source of authority. I believe he was hoping you’d to address this, I know I was. I believe your response was something to the effect of, “How did Jews 100 years before Christ know that Isaiah and Jeremiah were inspired?” I suppose this question is to head off any reference to the authority of the Church, but I would have preferred you “Say what you mean.”
Sticking with the Chicken, despite his attempts at charity and your complete rejection and lack there of, he put forth quite a thoughtful response to your question regarding the good of the Eucharist inside our bodies for such a brief period of time. A direct answer to a specific question from your original post, and you’d rather lobby for the removal of Bob Catholic from the thread? I’d be most interested in hearing your response to the Masked Chicken, and to SDG.
Though I have much to say, it’s all in the same vain. Please forgive my criticism, I mean not to sit in judgment, just hoping to encourage you to address the topics you said you wanted answered without copying sections of your Epistle over and over again. I believe this is supposed to be a dialogue and SDG is trying to have one with you. I hope you’ll engage him and those better equipped than I.
While doing so I hope you’ll be patient, kind, not arrogant or rude or irritable or resentful or insist on your own way. I hope you believe I have been.
SDG
Thank you for your responses and insights. Your wisdom in this thread is only overshadowed by your witness. I, for one, am better for it.
The Masked Chicken
Thank you, too, for your attempts at charity, show of humility, and expressing in words what I could not regarding the Eucharist’ presence within me at communion.
Daniel Stevens
“Gecko, one of the limitations of your essay is its seeming failure to appreciate, account for, or refute the mystical notions of time and space that we Catholics take for granted when it comes to the mysteries of Christ, most especially the Sacraments.”
Thanks for saying what I was thinking, but better

"Of course, without excusing the conduct of either Gecko or Oneil, I can't blame them for being on the defensive in a place like this."

Unfortunately, Gecko had some legitimate beefs. Most of his complaints about being accused of one thing or another had some validity.
For instance, the sentence I challenged him on regarding his citation of the CCC was problematic, but I don't think the fact that he cited the CCC and not other sources amounts to intellectual dishonesty. Nor do I think that charges of brainwashing or not reading the CCC were constructive.
Gecko's response was like pouring grease on fire. In the future it would be nice if there were nothing to ignite an interloctor's grease, and he merely went slip-sliding on his way without any unnecessary explosions.

Militant Protestants never seem to last long around here. Why is that?
Of course, without excusing the conduct of either Gecko or Oneil, I can't blame them for being on the defensive in a place like this.

Gecko, saying I'm "bemoaning" anything is a stretch. I'm making a simple observation. 
Citing your sources correctly is such an elementary aspect of any sort of written debate that it really does cast doubt on your arguments, as well as your logic. If you are unable to correctly attribute your findings to the proper sources, why should I trust that your arguments are framed logically? I have a B.A. in English, and if I had cited my sources that sloppily in any of my research papers, I would have received a very low grade indeed. 
But if you would like more evidence, let's look at this paragraph:
I went to the actual source ("Concerning the Superiority of the Eucharist over the Other Sacraments", chapter 3) wherein they say that it is immediately after the words of consecration by the priest that this "change" takes place. I assumed that another way of saying this would be "calling Him down" which makes sense to me since the pope said that the priest has "the POWER over the very BODY of Jesus Christ." I then used the statement that "the priest has the power to call down Christ from heaven" taken from Fr. O'Brien's book, "The Faith of Millions", who appears to be logically in sync with the papal teaching. This publication was published by TAN Books and given the official seal of the church.

Let's take the bolded portions in order.
1. You "assume"? Perhaps you should instead investigate how learned theologians interpret this passage instead of relying on your own assumptions. My teachers used to say that when you ASSUME, it makes an ASS out of U and ME.
2. It "appears to be" based on what? Your own opinion? What do other theologians say? Have you researched this?
3. "Official seal of the church" -- there is no such thing. If you're referring to an imprimatur, that is one bishop's opinion that the work does not directly contradict Catholic faith and morals. It is not a proclamation that the book is infallible, or that Catholics are obliged to consider its contents to be Church teaching. Imprimaturs can and have been revoked. Moreover, even the most truthful teachings can appear distorted when taken out of context and interpreted without proper exegesis, so quoting a short passage from a book and using the book's imprimatur as some sort of certificate of authenticity is, frankly, shoddy scholarship.
And that, Gecko, is just one paragraph of yours. I have no time to go through your 22,000 word essay to find your other errors -- given the errors in the above, I'd have to write a novel to rebut you.

And so Gecko gets what he wants.
All the time in the world to explain just how obscenely and uncharitably wrong other people are about his motives, sources, and everything else, but for some reason couldn't find the time to defend his claims on John 6 or respond to practically anything else I wrote .. not even the spelling of "dialog."
He is hereby disinvited from further participation. Gecko, if you want to appeal, feel free to write to me privately at Decent Films.

Lucien says
"When someone lies regarding their sources we should cut them off, regarding dialog, especially given the format here.
If someone were to speak incorrectly during a live formal debate there is room for excuse but not when you take the time to type out your responses."
_______________________________________
ANSWER: Excuse me, but I noticed you misspelled the word "dialogue" above, so since it appears you cannot live up to your own requirements for failing to proof-read, kindly do not bother us with any more of your unreasonable demands.

At this point I'm having a hard time avoiding the conclusion that Gecko WANTS to be disinvited and is actually TRYING to provoke me into doing it ... possibly because he can't actually defend his claims and would rather be banned than have to admit it. Then he can enjoy the smugness of innocent victimhood rather than the shame of backtracking.
Fine. If that's the case, I'm thisclose to giving him what he wants.
BTW, Gecko, "dialog" has two acceptable spellings. Jerk.

Lucien states:
When someone lies regarding their sources we should cut them off, regarding dialog, especially given the format here.
If someone were to speak incorrectly during a live formal debate there is room for excuse but not when you take the time to type out your responses.
_______________________________________
Response: I was munching on an apple as I read your comment, which caused such a spurt of laughter that part of the apple was spit onto my screen!
If you really were serious, you do need to take a wake-up pill I'm sorry to say. To insinuate that it is "inexcusable" for someone to make a mistake in their writing, is probably the most ludicrous requirement for someone's credibility I have ever heard in my life! NO ONE on earth could possibly support such an outrageous demand. Let me pull one example out of hat that ought to silence you. The Bible translation used at the Council of Trent (The Latin Vulgate) expresses Ezekial 18:30 as "Be converted and DO PENANCE". And Luke 13:5 as , "Except you do PENANCE you shall all likewise perish". And Acts 2:38 as "Do PENANCE and be baptized..." What's worse is that they went on to say the Vulgate did not contain any errors! And this was an "infallible" council? Spare me.
The original Hebrew and Greek make it apparent that the Vulgate was WRONG. God wants REPENTANCE, not penance. Happily, modern editions have now properly changed these errors to "repent", but oh my, isn't it shocking that the bigwigs of the RCC also could not live up to your
"no mistakes allowed when writing" demand? But ummm, will you hold any condemnation for THEM? Of course not. Catholics may make as many mistakes as they want, burn as many Protestants at the stake as they wish, molest as many little boys as possible and embrace faulty translations of Holy Writ without a care in the world. Have you no shame???
And guess what? I just noticed that intertwined with your pompous and arrogant pronouncement that one's credibility MUST narrow down to "perfection" if they are to be respected in their writing, I just noticed that you misspelled the word "DIALOGUE" above.

GECKO: CHILL OUT. NOW.
I can understand taking umbrage at JoAnna's charge of "intellectual dishonesty." Fine. Respond to the charge like a Christian.
Leaping from a challenge about the honesty of your sourcing practices to "Oh yeah? What about PRIESTLY ABUSE!" is way, way over the top … just like going from "Gecko is a brainwashed bigot who never bothered to read the CCC" to "You're a LIAR on your way to HELL unless you shape up!" (Incidentally, your representation of what a Catholic might say about priestly abuse is, to put it mildly, not among your better efforts to approximate what an actual Catholic might say about anything.)
I am not yet ready to disinvite you, but I am closer than I was this morning, and nearly every post you write pushes me in the same direction.
The one good thing in your latest post is that it looks like you can actually acknowledge room for improvement in your presentation. Let's build on that. Try responding to my MANY-times-repeated challenge regarding the theological accuracy of describing Christ as "coming down from heaven" in the Eucharist. Then let's see if you can defend anything you've said about John 6 against my rebuttals.
Or you can keep issuing acerbic rejoinders to other participants by whom you feel slighted, and we can take an early weekend here. Your choice.

JoAnna bemoans:
Why, then, did you cite CCC 1376 as your only source and not this other source as well? It's intellectually dishonest and doesn't really make me want to take your arguments seriously, if you can't (or won't) even cite your sources properly.
Answer: JoAnna, are you a perfect person? Does every single word that comes out of your mouth carry the pristine certainty of truth personified? The answer to that is no, and it is the same for me! I am dismayed that you immediately jump to the conclusion that I was purposely trying to be intellectually dishonest and don't even entertain the POSSIBILITY that I simply could have been better at annotating the quote from #1376 with the ones I furnished you upon request. Taken together, there is no argument and you know it. For the charge of dishonesty to carry any weight, you would have to find a similar string of erroneous notations, as well as furnishing a reason as to what I might have to gain for purposely withholding the other two references (BOTH contained in my essay-- but just not next to #1376 which you would have preferred, and which I can happily change in the blink of an eye). So the accusation of "deceit" must be thrown out the window if you yourself have any integrity. Frankly, it upsets my stomach when you don't look at the BIG picture of all my other ACCURATE references and take great delight in zeroing in on the misplacement of a couple of quotes! Will you be divorcing your husband any time soon because he may have some shortcomings? No you will not. Will you be leaving the Catholic Church any time soon even in light of the horrific and disgusting molestations that have been going on for years, courtesy of innumerable Catholic priests? You'll tell me, "oh they're only human, we ought to forgive and forget, and of course, we MUST continue to take them seriously". Fine, if you're going to continue to take THEM seriously, then you can do the same for me, at least as someone who is trying to accurately represent what your church teaches....even though you may disagree with my conclusions.

Gecko, why do you keep responding to everyone else and mostly ignoring me? (I'm the one who can disinvite you, after all...)
You are in no position to object to the abrasiveness of BobCatholic's rhetoric, which I agree is beyond the pale. BobCatholic may have accused you of being brainwashed and not bothering to read the CCC, but nobody has suggested that you are personally on the path to hell, and I'm a lot more inclined to crack down on that sort of thing.
Everybody chill. Stick to the issues and the arguments, and avoid every kind of gratuitous personal swipe.
Don't make me stop the car and come back there, I don't care who started it, I'll finish it, and all that jazz.
Gecko: You have some overdue responses to me. Get cracking.

"Bob the Catholic" makes the accusation that
"Gecko was brainwashed into hating our faith. They lied to him and provided him misinformation and he didn't bother reading the CCC for himself."
Response: In my opinion, the man ought to be banned from this site. If the moderator of this thread knows in his heart that they would have given ME the ax for saying such things, then they ought to be consistent and ban Bobcat. Needless to say, the charges of brainwashing and being lied to all my life, are nothing but wild speculations that I'm sure all readers will agree were uncalled for. The further nonsense about me not reading the CCC is also quite ridiculous as my own worn out paperback copy, if it could speak, would laugh at. Still, Bobcat is relentless by informing us that
"Anti-Catholicism = bigotry and lies. Both things Christ would not tolerate"
Response: I'm quite sure if Bobcat auditioned for Disney to be the voice-over for Snow White's father---the one who gave the kind maiden her perky personality and love for chipmunks,---there is no doubt Bobcat would fail to get the part. Now let me get this straight; everything I have said thus far must be classified as bigoted, anti-Catholic hatred???? And everything Bobcat has said does not even carry a HINT of Anti-PROTESTANTISM????? Why there isn't a person in the universe who would agree to that, so no further comment is necessary.
Also, you appear to be blind to the fact that you are a false witness---- something specifically condemned in the Bible. If one is to accuse someone of "LYING", they ought to bring forth the evidence of the alleged "untruth" and better be able to prove it alongside God's word. So don't tell me that Jesus would not tolerate me "searching the scriptures" which He instructed us to do in no less than 25 places. So far, I've only seen you quote Scripture one time, and even there, it was taken out of context (see below), so who do you think the Lord has more respect for?
Bobcat is bringing up the same subject for the third time now and I'm only putting up with it so the audience can see how lame his responses are.
He said: "I am expecting you to hold to Apostolic interpretation of scripture rather than Svendsen's man-made interpretation of scripture.....You posted long essays of his verbatim."
Response: Someone calculated that my essay came out to be 22,000 words. I quoted one paragraph of Mr. Svendsen and you make the completely false charge that I posted his LONG ESSAYS VERBATIM--- a total fabrication that anyone can check out in a minute (but of course no one will admit because it is not proper etiquette to condemn a fellow Catholic even if they have proven to be a hypocrite). But oh my, doesn't the "long essays by Svendsen" charge fall into the category of LYING? May I remind you that according to the book of Revelation, liars will not inherit the kingdom of heaven, so you'd better shape up.
I said: "You know very well you don't have any evidence other than the gospel of John to go on yourself, so what you're trying to prove, I have no idea."
He answered: "Actually I do have evidence of John's interpretation of scripture. He didn't hold it to himself, he did pass it on.
But it's not in the Bible. If it were, you would have found it and not arguing with me. The Apostolic interpretation
of scripture is available and you choose to reject it."
Response: The unprovable assumption that John passed it on into the waiting hands of Roman Catholic dignitaries for commentary, is delusive. What you really mean to say is that as a result of what Roman Catholic authorities have since SAID about John 6, we ought to listen to them, plain and simple. That is a FAR CRY from your original demand of me asking what "JOHN'S interpretaion was of his own writing!" But as a matter of fact, even though you were referring to RC authorities when you referred to "John's interpretation", I took you by surprise by actually giving you the writer's own personal interpretation contained explicity in 20:31 (juxtaposed with 6:53)---something you were not prepared to answer then, neither are you now, because the "word of God is sharper than any two-edged sword" and you have lost the battle. Furthermore, the claim that the RC interpretation is "APOSTOLIC" is completely gratuitous and is your own opinion which I thank you very much for sharing. I emphatically deny it. At the end of the day, all you really wanted to find out was if I KNEW that the official RC position on John 6 was not contained in the Bible. Hello???? I spent 22,000 words outlining that very thesis--- so your "intimidating" question was a complete waste of time to every person reading this.
Bobcat said: "However, you have already proven that you do not understand John 6 as John the Apostle did. If you did, you would have
cited John's interpretation instead of your own."
Answer: Your persistent assumption that the Roman Catholic Church knew the personal opinion of John the apostle now falls into the category of stand-up comedy.
He said: "Unless you can prove to me that your interpretation of scripture is identical to John's interpretation, you
are doing nothing but passing on a man-made tradition which makes null the word of God.
Answer: Quite funny, you really ought to be on Leno. And unless YOU can prove to ME that YOUR interpretation is IDENTICAL to John's, you are doing nothing but passing on man-made tradition which makes null and void the word of God. For your information B-C, the Roman Catholic Church has only "infallibly" defined the amount of biblical verses that can be found on one hand---and John 6 IS NOT ONE OF THEM. Consequently, MY interpretaion which IS based on God's word, has more credibility than yours, which you admit, is not to be found in the text.
To validate the coming of the Mass, you quote the O.T: "Malachi 1:11 says: For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great
among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.
Your man made tradition says "No, that doesn't have to happen!"
Response: It is nothing less than eisegesis to read a prohpecy of the Mass into this verse. First of all, since when has the Lord's name been great among the heathen? His name is typically the #1 curse word of preferance for all unbelieving humanity, so suffice it to say He couldn't have been referring to the Mass, since that's old history, but rather of a future time to come which we haven't even reached yet. Second, the "pure offering" mentioned in the text does not unavoidably refer to a sacrifice for sin, which is what you would have to opine if you say He means "the Mass". The word translated "offering" refers to the grain offering, which was a voluntary act of gratitude and NOT any sort of sacrificial sin offering as we find in the Mass.

Wow I can post again on this combox, too bad my arguments now are outdated; so I will just have to point out one of many follies that I have noticed regarding the techniques of many anti-Catholic apologists.
"Why, then, did you cite CCC 1376 as your only source and not this other source as well? It's intellectually dishonest and doesn't really make me want to take your arguments seriously, if you can't (or won't) even cite your sources properly."
JoAnna, good call this is the key that all of us should take to heart. When someone lies regarding their sources we should cut them off, regarding dialog, especially given the format here.
If someone were to speak incorrectly during a live formal debate there is room for excuse but not when you take the time to type out your responses.
There is no reason other than the fact that they lied because their case is weak and they know it.
If Gecko were discussing these things with others in cyberspace there would be almost no chance they would catch him lying.
Let me do the same here and see if Gecko can catch me typing a lie:
The handbook of Anti-Catholic Apologetics states on page 102 paragraph 2; "...that if engaged with Catholics regarding matters of doctrine it is excusable to lie regarding sources - especially Catholic sources - and their content. It is pleasing, in this instance, to the Lord "who is the way, the truth and the life". Since the fact of the matter is that their sources are of the devil and most Catholics will not know there is any source to reference regarding matters of doctrine."

Answer: You are correct in saying that the above info cannot strictly be found in #1376. However, there is not one thing I said that cannot strictly be verified in reliable RC literature either!
Why, then, did you cite CCC 1376 as your only source and not this other source as well? It's intellectually dishonest and doesn't really make me want to take your arguments seriously, if you can't (or won't) even cite your sources properly.

In my own words I then stated that nothing could be noticably changed "under close scientific examination" to convey exactly what the pope has taught, elsewhere noted in my essay:
"[We] must firmly maintain that in objective reality, independently of our mind, the bread and wine have ceased to exist. . .[This] mystery indeed taxes our mind's ability to pass beyond appearances. Here our senses fail us." {Ecclesia de Eucharistia, by Pope John Paul II, #15 & 58}.
There are many realities which scientific examination cannot reveal - not sure what your point is. Science does not, cannot examine the immortality of the soul (or the soul itself), it cannot measure or observe the soul changing through baptism. Yet these are realities, are they not?

"Tim correctly notes that I say that many of Jesus's disciples walked away because of the proclamation of the absolute sovereignty of God and the inability of man as stated in 6:44 & 65."

This proposition reminds me of C.S. Lewis' remark about biblical critics who claimed that they could "read between the lines of the old texts; the evidence is their obvious inability to read (in any sense worth discussing) the lines themselves."
Jesus' proclamation of God's sovereignty and human inability in vv 44 and 65 is a commentary on why the grumbling disciples left: They left, Jesus says, because it has not been given to them to accept what Jesus is saying and follow him, and so they cannot help stumbling at Jesus' teaching.
There is no evidence at all that the Jews leave because Jesus said that it had not been given to them, and that this teaching was the material occasion for their stumbling (as opposed to the explanation of the formal cause of their stumbling). There is no evidence that his words on that subject made any impression on them at all. They never comment on it, and they ignore it completely the first time he brings it up in verse 44.
On the contrary, there is every evidence that the teaching over which they stumbled is Jesus' teaching on the bread of life. This is plainly what they are interested in, and they comment on it again and again, both positively and negatively.
Let's review!

Jesus himself begins in verses 26-27 by noting that the disciples have only sought him out because of the miraculous meal he provided, and urges them to "the food which endures to eternal life, which the Son of man will give to you." The disciples respond by alluding to Moses and the Old Testament "bread from heaven." When Jesus goes on to speak about the "true bread from heaven," they say, "Lord, give us this bread always."

Then, however, after Jesus speaks of himself as the bread from heaven, the murmuring begins. John specifically tells us that the disciples murmured at him "because he said 'I am the bread which came down from heaven.'"

Then, when Jesus raises the stakes by identifying his flesh (not just himself) as the bread he would give for the life of the world, the murmuring intensifies to open dispute: "The Jews then disputed among themselves, saying, "How can this man give us his flesh to eat?"

Note that this is after Jesus' first declaration in v. 44 about the sovereignty of God and the inability of man; they pay no attention to this declaration. Nobody is offended or troubled by this. Their whole attention is focused on the shocking idea of eating Jesus' flesh.

Then, after Jesus raises the stakes yet again to drinking his blood in the grand-slam scandal of verses 53-58, the disciples openly express their inability to accept what Jesus is saying: "This is a hard saying; who can listen to it?" Note that they not only express their own inability to accept it, they also implicitly affirm Jesus' own teaching that no one can accept it unless it is given to them to do so ("Who can listen to it?").

At this point Jesus himself specifically comments that it is this teaching -- the teaching about eating his flesh and blood -- that gives them offense: "Do you take offense at this?"

And so he offers the formal explanation (not the material cause) for their offense: "This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father" -- i.e., because no one can accept so hard a teaching as eating and drinking Jesus' body and blood without faith from God.

Nobody comments on this final saying. Nobody takes offense, grumbles, murmurs or disputes about it. There is no evidence that this saying about God's sovereignty and human inability had any causal connection to the disciples' dissatisfaction. Rather, it was merely Jesus' commentary on their dissatisfaction with the teaching where the difficulty clearly lay, the teaching about eating his flesh and drinking his blood.

Yet despite this overwhelming exegetical evidence, you can only admit that Jesus' teaching about eating his flesh and drinking his blood "MAY have contributed IN PART to their leaving," while insisting -- with no exegetical evidence at all -- that a couple of references to God's sovereignty that no one comments on or objects to were "the PRIMARY REASON."
That is the most profoundly unpersuasive exegesis I've encountered in a long time.

Tim correctly notes that I say that many of Jesus's disciples walked away because of the proclamation of the absolute sovereignty of God and the inability of man as stated in 6:44 & 65.
But he concludes that,
"If anyone was familiar with such language, if anyone embraced such religious concepts with enthusiasm, it would have been these first century Jews. So, their *leaving* based on that would make no sense at all."
Answer: No one is arguing that these Jews would NOT have happily embraced the sovereignty of God. I AM saying that
#1) they were getting the impression that Jesus was claiming to be the Messiah but were unconvinced, as is evidenced when the Jews asked Him, "How long dost thou make us to doubt? If thou be the Christ, tell us plainly." (John 10:24). I say this is proof He was speaking figuratively in
John 6.
#2) The Jews did not believe in His divine origin from the start---which is a truth set forth in the very first verse of this gospel; hence it is illogical to suppose that Jesus would lead UNBELIEVERS on to more advanced learning---such as the alleged "mystery" relating to the consumption of His flesh and blood. By describing Himself as the "Bread of Life" in verse 35, the RCC admits that up to verse 47, "the teaching and the meaning, at least up to this point, is purely symbolic" (Not By Bread Alone, by R. Sungenis, p. 172). Thus, the RCC bids us to believe that Jesus was speaking metaphorically when He says He was the bread that came down from heaven, but later spoke literally when He told them to eat it! This is pure nonsense.
Tim then says,
In context it is OBVIOUS that they left because of Jesus teaching that "...unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me, and I in him.".
Answer: Au contraire, pierre. To millions past and present, (including those the RCC put to death for believing Jesus spoke figuratively in this very chapter) it is most definitely NOT "obvious" at all. While it MAY have contributed IN PART to their leaving, it is the word of God that over-rules you when we read in verse 65-- the PRIMARY REASON. The unbelieving Jews did not accept it would take the power of God to come to HIM, whose identity they considerd suspect. Because the operating power of the Father was missing in their empty souls in verse 65, verse 66 states, "Because of THIS", or in another, "From THAT time, many of His disciples went away." We must strive to stay within context, and the context simply does not tell us to refer back to anything else except verse 65 when it says "THIS" was the reason they went away. Thus your "obvious" conclusion is out of order.
The last part of what you quoted Jesus as saying is also evidence He was using the metaphors of eating and drinking to connote "believing".
"Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood REMAINS in me and I in Him."
The Lord is here referring to the popular biblical concept of "ABIDING" in Him. However, Holy Writ is completely silent on abiding in Christ by virtue of ingesting the Eucharist! It is just the opposite: "HEREBY WE KNOW THAT HE ABIDES IN US; BY THE SPIRIT WHICH HE HATH GIVEN US" {1 John 3:24}, and THAT, sir, comes by FAITH IN CHRIST, the very thing He was elucidating on in John 6 and confirmed elswhere (Gal 3:2) whether you believe it or not. Consequently, the reason we don't have to literally eat Him is because He ALREADY dwells with us by the promise of the Holy Spirit! It would be redundant for Him to vow the same thing through ingestion of the Eucharist---therefore His words in John 6 and the Last Supper must be taken figuratively.
The Catechism states that the principal fruit of ingesting the Eucharist is abiding in Christ more intimately {CCC #1391, #1406}. Nothing could be further from the truth! By biblical definition, abiding "IN CHRIST" has nothing whatsoever to do with consuming the wafer. Nothing! This two word phrase is used over 20 times. We are "in Christ" and abide in Him by FAITH when we eat His flesh and drink His blood (i.e., when we believe in both His LIFE (flesh) of obedience fulfilling the law FOR us, and His DEATH (blood) taking the penalty upon Himself so we wouldn't have to (Romans 5:10). See also being "in Christ" at 1 John 2:5; 3:24, Romans 3:24, 8:1, 8:39, Eph 1:3, 2:13, 3:11-12, Phil 3:9; 14, 4:19, 1 Tim 3:13, 2 Tim 1:1, 1:9, 1:13 , 2:1, 2:10, 3:15, 1 Cor 1:2, 1:30, Colosssians 1:28; 2:6, 1 Thess 1:1, 2:14, 1 Peter 5:14}.
Read for example, Colossians 2:6: "As you therefore received Christ Jesus the Lord, so walk ye in Him". How then are we to walk "in Him"? Answer: "As we received Him". And did we receive Him via the mouth? NO! It was by faith alone! When that happens, we receive the Holy Spirit (Gal 3:2) and ipso facto, become "complete in Him" {Colossians 2:10}. If we are "COMPLETE" by faith, there is simply no room for arguing that swallowing the Eucharist makes us somehow "more complete". Therefore, because believing in Christ brings completeness and the fullness of the Holy Spirit, the benefits claimed for ingesting the Eucharist are non-existent.

Gecko, do you think that "scientific examination" could show that Jesus was the Son of God?
Why, or why not?

"However, there is not one thing I said that cannot strictly be verified in reliable RC literature either!"

Your repeated reliance on an inspirational passage from a wholly non-authoritative work, The Faith of Millions -- a passage chock-a-block of manifestly non-literal language (the priest "reaching up into heaven," "commanding" Jesus, etc. -- to maintain the idea of Jesus "coming down from heaven" over against the clear teaching attested by the likes of Aquinas, Pius VI and Newman is not persuasive.
You should concede this point: It is not Catholic teaching that Jesus actually "comes down" from heaven in the Eucharist.
On the other points, as I said, I accept the evidence from Pius XI regarding the acceptability of describing the priest as "having the power" to turn the bread and wine into the body and blood of Christ; and it is certainly the case that Catholic theology teaches that the bread and the wine cease to exist.

JoAnna asks:
1. There is no mention of the priest "call[ing] down Jesus Christ from heaven."
2. There is no mention of there being "no change in the elements under close scientific examination."
I'm confused. How can you draw the above two conclusions from a reading of paragraph 1376 in and of itself?
_______________________________________
Answer: You are correct in saying that the above info cannot strictly be found in #1376. However, there is not one thing I said that cannot strictly be verified in reliable RC literature either! I quoted the pope:
"For the priest has power over the very body of Jesus Christ and makes it present upon our altars, offering Him a victim pleasing to the Divine Majesty" {Pius XI, "Ad Catholici Sacerdotii, 1935}.
Please notice that #1376 says that the Council of Trent SUMMARIZES thus and such. I went to the actual source ("Concerning the Superiority of the Eucharist over the Other Sacraments", chapter 3) wherein they say that it is immediately after the words of consecration by the priest that this "change" takes place. I assumed that another way of saying this would be "calling Him down" which makes sense to me since the pope said that the priest has "the POWER over the very BODY of Jesus Christ." I then used the statement that "the priest has the power to call down Christ from heaven" taken from Fr. O'Brien's book, "The Faith of Millions", who appears to be logically in sync with the papal teaching. This publication was published by TAN Books and given the official seal of the church. So if you are upset by my using the words "calling down" when one is trying his best to represent RC doctrine accurately, you should write a letter to the publisher above and the diocese which issued the offical seal.
In my own words I then stated that nothing could be noticably changed "under close scientific examination" to convey exactly what the pope has taught, elsewhere noted in my essay:
"[We] must firmly maintain that in objective reality, independently of our mind, the bread and wine have ceased to exist. . .[This] mystery indeed taxes our mind's ability to pass beyond appearances. Here our senses fail us." {Ecclesia de Eucharistia, by Pope John Paul II, #15 & 58}.

JoAnna : That's because Gecko was brainwashed into hating our faith. They lied to him and provided him misinformation about our faith and he didn't bother reading the CCC for himself.
Anti-Catholicism = bigotry and lies. Both things Christ would not tolerate.

Hi all, Gecko sent me an e-mail and asked me to post the following:
"Hey guys....
I am sending this through one of your thread lurkers who was kind enough to paste it here for me. I simply cannot get through. Seemingly, some have the ability to bypass Typepad's stubborness, but I do not. Don't know if this is temporary or not, but just wanted to say I wasn't ignoring anyone.
Gecko"

Gecko,
You wrote, "The RCC teaches that a priest has the power to call down Jesus Christ from heaven, and through the miracle of Transubstantiation, the communion wafer and the wine are both suddenly changed into His actual body and blood, even though there appears to be no change in the elements under close scientific examination {Catechism of the Catholic Church, # 1376}."
From the CCC:
1376 The Council of Trent summarizes the Catholic faith by declaring: "Because Christ our Redeemer said that it was truly his body that he was offering under the species of bread, it has always been the conviction of the Church of God, and this holy Council now declares again, that by the consecration of the bread and wine there takes place a change of the whole substance of the bread into the substance of the body of Christ our Lord and of the whole substance of the wine into the substance of his blood. This change the holy Catholic Church has fittingly and properly called transubstantiation."

1. There is no mention of the priest "call[ing] down Jesus Christ from heaven."
2. There is no mention of there being "no change in the elements under close scientific examination."
I'm confused. How can you draw the above two conclusions from a reading of paragraph 1376 in and of itself?

>Mr. Bob.... you continue to pose the question of demanding to know HOW the apostle John understood what Jesus meant in chapter 6 of his gospel. In your desperate attempt to find some fault with me, I am now required to be a mindreader and know his exact thoughts to have any validity!
No, I don't intend you to be a mindreader.
I am expecting you to hold to Apostolic doctrine, not man made doctrine.
I am expecting you to hold to Apostolic interpretation of scripture rather than Svendsen's man-made interpretation of scripture.
>You know very well you don't have any evidence other than the gospel of John to go on yourself, so what you're trying to prove, I have no idea.
Actually I do have evidence of John's interpretation of scripture. He didn't hold it to himself, he did pass it on.
But it is not in the Bible. If it were, you would have found it and not arguing with me. The Apostolic interpretation
of scripture is available and you choose to reject it.
However, you have already proven that you do not understand John 6 as John the Apostle did. If you did, you would have
cited John's interpretation instead of your own.
>STATED IN FIGURATIVE LANGUAGE . . .{John 6:54}
>"whoso eateth my flesh and drinks my blood, hath eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day"
Who told you this is figurative language?
Now, all you did in your post was basically try to sell YOUR INTERPRETATION of scripture.
I'd rather hold to the Apostolic interpretation of scripture rather than a man-made one.
Galatians 1:9, you know.
Unless you can prove to me that your interpretation of scripture is identical to John's interpretation, you
are doing nothing but passing on a man-made tradition which makes null the word of God.
Jesus Christ our Lord and Savior says "This is My Body"
Your man-made tradition says "no it is not, it is just a symbol."
Jesus Christ our Lord and Savior says "This is My Blood"
Your man-made tradition says "no it is not, it is just a symbol."
Malachi 1:11 says:
For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles;
and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great
among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.
Your man made tradition says "No, that doesn't have to happen!"
What I see here is your inability to provide John's interpretation of scripture. I would think he would know
best on what he wrote in John 6. But you cannot provide me John's interpretation, acting like it is some
mindreading trick is needed.
You cannot provide John's interpretation of Scripture because you do not have it, because you do not hold to Apostolic doctrine and flat out reject it. Instead you depend on men
such as Svensen and his long essays which you posted verbatim.
I'd rather hold to Christianity than Svensenism.

Dear Gecko,
You wrote:
Mr. Chicken wonders if I wouldn't mind breaking up my essay into smaller managable parts. I would be delighted. However, I still want to know from my answer to you previously, if you will admit that there DO exist Protestants who understand RC theology and at the same time reject it, just as there are Catholics who do understand Prot theology and reject IT.
This is a loaded question. Since the fullness of faith can only exist in one or the other group, this is like asking, tacitly, are there some people who reject the Catholic faith for something better. If the Catholic Church has the fullness of faith, then if a person rejects it to become Protestants, despite (per hypothesi) understanding it, then they would have rejected the faith, but for nothing better. These people, properly called, would be heretics and would have put their souls in grave danger. If the Catholic Church were not the fullness of faith, then (per hypothesi) they would be leaving the Church for something better.
So, the question is not, strickly speaking, are there Protestants who understand Catholic teaching and reject it, but whether or not the Catholic teaching or Protestant teaching contains the fullness of faith. If a Protestant completely understood the teachings of the Church and found them deficient, then, presumably, they would be compelled to leave for something that does contain the fullness of faith, since all people are morally bound to follow the faith of Christ. However, since you have not even begun to prove the conclusion that the Catholic Church does not contain the fullness of faith, it is unclear whether or not a Protestant who has understood the Catholic faith and left it in search of the fullness of faith, has, in fact, understood the faith, since he would be searching for something he left. This would be logically inconsistent.
Your comment presupposes that Catholicism is not the fullness of faith and you have not proven this. Until this is proven, your original statement cannot be decided, except trivially: there have been people who have left the Catholic Church to become Protestants, which is a matter of history, presupposing that they will find the fullness of faith. Just because they have left and claimed to not have found the fullness of faith does not make it the case that the fullness of faith wasn't there, however. We have a few logical possibilities and a moral imperative:
A = Catholic Church has the fullness of faith
B = Catholic Faith does not have the fullness of faith
R = The person has understood the teaching of the Catholic Church
S = The person has not understood the teaching of the Catholic Church
L = The person has left the Catholic Church
NL = The person has not left the Church
Moral Imperative: one must go to whatever group has the fullness of faith
Your statement that there are Protestants who have understood the teaching of the Catholic Church and left can only be correct in the form: BRL. In order for this to be logically consistent, you must first prove B, since if the form is ARL, this would contradict the Moral Imparative and be an illogical action.
Thus, to properly answer your question as to whether or not a person has properly understood Catholic teaching and left, you must first prove or disprove A, otherwise, they may have left the Church, but either they are no longer interested in following the Moral Imperative (in which case, the truth of A or B does not have to be established), or they have not understood what they were leaving when they left.
In other words, I can't answer your question until you prove A is false. You have not, so the status of people leaving the Catholic Church who claim to understand its teaching is an open question.
I am also waiting for you to tell me how a Jew living 100 years before Christ could know that, let's say, Isaiah and Jeremiah were inspired without any RC church in existance to tell them.
The could do so by a special dispensation from God to fill in for the defect they had in revelation until Christ came. In fact, Scripture alludes to this (Heb 1: 1 - 2):
God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets,
has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds;
[NKJV]
Now, I have asked this question for the third time and no one has answered. I submit the Protestant has everything Jesus promised by His sending to us the Holy Spirit (and He did that NOT in conjunction with the institution of the Eucharist, which is mere speculation on the part of the RCC which cannot be biblically exegeted). The Roman Catholic thinks they have something special when they allegedly injest His body and blood. What is it, Mr. Chicken, that the body and blood accomplishes within your anatomy that the presence of the Holy Spirit does NOT? In anticipation of your answer, I wrote the following:
This is a complicated question (more than I suspect you know), so I will only give a simple answer, here, otherwise, I will have to write a book to properly answer your question. In giving us the Holy Spirit, Jesus did what? What is it you think the Holy Spirit does in the Church? Is the Holy Spirit the Father? Is he the Son? For your information, Jesus did not promise the Holy Spirit at the institution of the Eucharist. This is not the teaching of the Church. There are two institution-like narratives, one for the Eucharist and one for the Holy Spirit (John 6 and John 14- 17). Both are found exclusively in the Gospel of John. Both occur in the context of a meal and both point to a future when they will be realized. They have similar points: both relate to a future preisthood and such, but I don't want to get into a detailed analysis, right now.
To answer your question, directly, in fact, those who receive the Eucharist receive something the Holy Spirit does not have: the body, blood, and soul of Jesus Christ. In fact, this is something the Holy Spirit cannot give because he does not possess it, only Christ does. The Holy Spirit and Christ share the divine nature and as such, when one receives the Eucharist, one receives, in addition to the body, blood, and soul of Christ, his divinity to participate in, but to do that is to also receive the Holy Spirit, since there can be no division in nature. This is the correct interpretation of the passage you cited, earlier:
We believe that as a result of consuming the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist, we are granted the indwelling presence of the Holy Spirit. For as John Paul II has said, "Through our communion in His body and blood, Christ also grants us His Spirit" (and) "the joint and inseparable activity of the Son and of the Holy Spirit. . . is at work in the Eucharist" {Ecclesia de Eucharistia, #17 & 23}
If you deny that, if the Eucharist is Christ, when you receive it you also receive the Holy Spirit, then you would have fundamentally misunderstood the nature of the Trinity.
So, if the Eucharist is Christ, then one receives a relationship one does not have through the Holy Spirit - a relationship of person to person (Christ and the communicant), both of whom have walked the earth, whereas the Holy Spirit has not.
I suspect, but can't say further without probing deeper, that you may have misunderstood what the Holy Spirit's purpose is in the Church. If you keep reading your interpretation of what that is (you may quote Scripture all you want - so do the hundreds of splinter Pentecostal groups that differ on the interpretation of those passages), you may arrive at any number of different interpretations, but they are not complete or consistent.
We can discuss the Holy Spirit later. In regards to your original question about the Eucharist, I believe I have given you one or more ways the Eucharist provides something the Holy Spirit does not give. Ultimately, the question boils down to whether or not Christ is in the Eucharist. This is not a question you asked me, so I will let you debate this with others, here.

There have been whole hours. Didn't mean to imply Dr. Who was involved.
The Chicken

Gotta love Typepad...actually, if you can't post a comment, you might save the document in text format, somewhere. There have been who hours where I couldn't post a comment, although I have often suspected that this was God's comment on what I had written :)

...And always copy your comment (highlight+Ctrl C) before hitting post, so you can paste it when you try again...

Note: If you're having trouble posting to this combox, it's not just you and it's not something deliberate. There seems to be something buggy on TypePad's end. Sometimes you can get in, sometimes you can't.
Try closing your browser completely and coming to the site fresh. Or try varying www.jimmyakin.org with just jimmyakin.org (without the www), or jimmyakin.typepad.com. Stupid little tricks like that sometimes help.

"Catholic apologists who claim that eating flesh and drinking blood are either metaphors of reviling in John 6 or they are not metaphors at all, are guilty of the either/or fallacy. They are giving us a false dilemma. While the Old Testament and other passages can shed light on how those terms have been metaphorically used elsewhere, the determining criterion for a proper exegesis of those terms is the immediate Johannine context. The context makes it clear that eating flesh and drinking blood are primarily metaphors for belief in Jesus."

This is a reasonable rejoinder, as far as it goes. It's quite true that images can be used to mean more than one thing, and an image with a well-known metaphorical sense can be given a bold new interpretation by a speaker as daring and challenging as Jesus. Jesus certainly had the rhetorical wherewithal to reinterpret a metaphorical image in a radically different sense, and he could easily have done so in John 6 had he wished to. An excessive insistence that a metaphorical reference to "eating the flesh and drinking the blood" must mean only what it already meant elsewhere is closed-minded thinking.
That said, in light of the established metaphorical sense of "eating the flesh and drinking the blood," the alleged choice of Jesus to use this image as a metaphor for something positive seems even more provocative, more counter-intuitive, more likely to be misunderstood by listeners, including the Twelve.
It heightens the difficulty outlined above of explaining why, having spoken straightforwardly of believing in him, Jesus would then choose, contrary to his use of figurative language everywhere else, to cloak his already-stated plain meaning in baffling, off-putting, seemingly antagonistic metaphorical language. Language that drove away many followers, and over which he was prepared to lose even the Twelve, despite his consistent practice of clearing up any confusions the Twelve might suffer over his striking images. Except, of course, when their confusion was precisely that they failed to grasp that he meant exactly what he said.

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